A question was asked of me recently, and I am posting it here to to get the opinions of others on the matter.
In Mark 1:3-5,9 we read: "The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight. John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins....And it came to pass in those days, that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized of John in Jordan."
Question: If Jesus had no sin, why did He come to John to be baptized?
In Mark 1:3-5,9 we read: "The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight. John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins....And it came to pass in those days, that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized of John in Jordan."
Question: If Jesus had no sin, why did He come to John to be baptized?
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