Baptism

**msportmore** · 10-08-2002, 11:51 AM

Re: Baptism

Originally posted by Beluved:
[qb]Ms Portmore.. seems like we goh ah di same church fi true.. [img]/forums/images/graemlins/laugh.gif[/img] [/qb]

Beluved, Praise the Lord [img]/forums/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

**churchgirl** · 10-08-2002, 11:53 AM

Re: Baptism

IMHO, I think the conflict comes in Ms. P as that with the former the name of Jesus isn't proclaimed on the baptisee. It says baptise in the Name of the Father, Name of the Son and Name of the Holy Ghost, hence you must give a name. Father, Son and Holy Ghost are just the titles but not names.

Mek mi know if mi confuse yuh. [img]/forums/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

**Beluved** · 10-08-2002, 11:59 AM

Re: Baptism

Originally posted by churchgirl:
[qb]IMHO, I think the conflict comes in Ms. P as that with the former the name of Jesus isn't proclaimed on the baptisee. It says baptise in the Name of the Father, Name of the Son and Name of the Holy Ghost, hence you must give a name. Father, Son and Holy Ghost are just the titles but not names.

Mek mi know if mi confuse yuh. [img]/forums/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img] [/qb]

I agree with you churchgirl..

**msportmore** · 10-08-2002, 12:01 PM

Re: Baptism

ChurchGirl,
I'm not confused. Just trying to figure out why the conflict. Chances are those who baptise in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost know that all 3 are 1 (according to Deut 6:4 - Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD) Jesus told His disciples "I and my Father are one and when you see me you see the Father" So if someone understands that all these 3 are 1 then why is it wrong if they go according to Matt 28:19?

If you know that 2 + 1 = 3 isn't that the same as saying 1+1+1 = 3? (Do you follow what I'm saying?)

Someone told me once that there pastor baptizes his congregation however they want to...whether Matt 28:19 or Acts2:38 or both...I have never heard anything like that before in my life and I was like [img]/forums/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img] [img]/forums/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]
[img]/forums/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]

Anyway...your thoughts.

**churchgirl** · 10-08-2002, 12:12 PM

Re: Baptism

I agree with you Ms. P that all 3 are 1. However not everyone knows or acknowledge that fact. So a pastor can't assume that a person knows and proceed to baptise that person in the name of father etc and not proclaim what that name is.

Okay I'll illustrate it this way. If you tell me to go to the bank to withdraw some money in your name when I get to the teller I can't say, do you see that young lady over there, she wants me to get some money for her. Unless I tell the teller what your name is I won't get the money.

**msportmore** · 10-08-2002, 12:42 PM

Re: Baptism

ChurchGirl,
Just so you know, we are riding on the same train. (Acts 2:38 right?) As my Sunday School teacher always use to say even though he is a father to his son and he is a son to his father and he is a husband to his wife, those are merely titles but none of those are his names. And if his wife says do such and such "in the name of my husband" then it would be his name that is used. The same applies (as with your bank illustration).

Question: If an individual believes that all 3 are 1 and is baptized according to Matt 28:19, are they still lacking (since they weren’t baptized as Acts 2:38 states?) Example: If my Sunday School teacher’s comes to me and says could you please do such and such in the my son’s father’s name and in my husband’s name – since I know who her husband is, would I be wrong to simply do it verbatim? Lemme know if my analogy confused you cause I think it confused me!
[img]/forums/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

**Beluved** · 10-08-2002, 12:45 PM

Re: Baptism

Originally posted by Ms Portmore:
[qb]ChurchGirl,
Just so you know, we are riding on the same train. (Acts 2:38 right?) As my Sunday School teacher always use to say even though he is a father to his son and he is a son to his father and he is a husband to his wife, those are merely titles but none of those are his names. And if his wife says do such and such "in the name of my husband" then it would be his name that is used. The same applies (as with your bank illustration).

Question: If an individual believes that all 3 are 1 and is baptized according to Matt 28:19, are they still lacking (since they weren’t baptized as Acts 2:38 states?) Example: If my Sunday School teacher’s comes to me and says could you please do such and such in the my son’s father’s name and in my husband’s name – since I know who her husband is, would I be wrong to simply do it verbatim? Lemme know if my analogy confused you cause I think it confused me!
[img]/forums/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img] [/qb]

No I don't think that person is lacking.. Once one has gotten the personal revelation and conviction they lack nothing.

**churchgirl** · 10-08-2002, 01:06 PM

Re: Baptism

With you on that one Sis. B. It's all about the revelation. Trust me it took me a while to get this 3 = 1 business but the revelation was what did it.

**dahjah** · 10-08-2002, 07:54 PM

Re: Baptism

Nice discussion [img]/forums/images/graemlins/laugh.gif[/img]
But one ting mi kno is Jesus us not his name.
So wapm when ppl a call de wrong name?

Baptism

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